SIE Practice Exam 4

This is our fourth online SIE exam, with 25 more questions. These are challenging practice questions with detailed explanations.

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Question 1

Among the most significant differences between an open-end investment management company and a unit investment trust is that:

A
the open end company has a net asset value and a UIT does not.
B
the open end company issues redeemable securities and the UIT does not.
C
the UIT has a fixed portfolio and the open end company does not.
D
they require different FINRA licenses for an agent to sell them.
Question 1 Explanation: 
A unit investment trust typically has a fixed portfolio of securities, whereas an open end (mutual fund) makes purchases of additional securities for the portfolio on a regular and frequent basis.
Question 2

Single stock, or single sector, risk is more generally in the category described as:

A
systematic risk
B
market risk
C
non-systematic risk
D
economic risk
Question 2 Explanation: 
Non-systematic risk is business risk --- the risk of putting all your eggs in one basket, in one company, in one business sector…..and if that business does badly, you lose. Diversification is a good way of mitigating this risk.
Question 3

Diversification is a very effective way for an investor to mitigate:

A
business risk
B
market risk
C
monetary risk
D
longevity risk
Question 3 Explanation: 
As described in the explanation to question #67 above, diversification is an effective way to reduce exposure to business risk.
Question 4

Many folks living across the country choose to participate in their state’s 529 college savings plan. These investment programs are generally referred to by FINRA as:

A
municipal fund securities
B
LGIPs
C
pre-paid tuition plans
D
UGMA or UTMA
Question 4 Explanation: 
The 529 plans are considered by the SEC and FINRA to be municipal fund securities.
Question 5

As interest rates rise, which of the below will change the least in price?

A
T-bills
B
T-notes
C
T-bonds
D
their prices react roughly the same amount
Question 5 Explanation: 
Short term debt reacts the least in price when rates change.
Question 6

Your client wishes to make a substantial investment in a mutual fund your firm is offering. In order to qualify for a reduced sales load, they sign a letter of intent which gives them:

A
a year to comply with the breakpoint level
B
13 months to comply with the breakpoint level
C
90 days to comply with the breakpoint level
D
an obligation to comply with the rules regarding breakpoint qualification
Question 6 Explanation: 
A letter of intent is not an obligation but rather a show on one’s intent to invest an amount equal or more than a mutual fund’s breakpoint level so as to qualify for the reduced sales charge. LOI gives 13 months to do so.
Question 7

Choose from among the below ratings the one which is the higher credit rating in the speculative category as defined by Standard & Poors rating service would be:

A
AAA
B
BB+
C
Ba1
D
CCC
Question 7 Explanation: 
Investment grade ratings end with the BBB rating. Below that are speculative grade ratings. BB+ would be the higher speculative rating from among these multiple choice answers. Ba1 is a Moody’s rating, not S&P.
Question 8

The security instrument most often associated with enabling a US investor to facilitate trading in foreign stock is:

A
ADR
B
GDP
C
CMO
D
Forward contracts
Question 8 Explanation: 
American Depository Receipts are receipts for foreign stock and are a best way for American investors to take beneficial ownership in shares of foreign corporations.
Question 9

The writer of an option contract is said to have:

A
a long option position
B
a long stock position
C
a short option position
D
a short stock position
Question 9 Explanation: 
Shorting an option contract is doing an opening sale transaction, which is writing an option contract, generating premium income.
Question 10

Absent exceptional circumstances, NASDAQ trades during business hours are reported within:

A
15 minutes of the trade
B
1 minute of the trade
C
30 seconds of the trade
D
10 seconds of the trade
Question 10 Explanation: 
Trades are to be reported to the appropriate ‘tape’ within 10 seconds of execution of the transaction.
Question 11

An NYSE listed corporation has outstanding preferred stock with a cumulative provision and a $5.00 annual dividend. If the earnings over the past two years have led to the Board of Directors declaring a $3.00 preferred dividend two years ago and a $2.00 dividend last year, in order that a common dividend may be paid for the current year:

A
Dividends in arrears of $5.00 must be paid to the preferred
B
Preferred stockholders must be paid $10 per share
C
Preferred stockholders need to be paid their current $ 5.00 dividend
D
None of the above is accurate.
Question 11 Explanation: 
Not only do the past unpaid dividends have to be brought current, but the current year’s dividend must also be paid. Common stock cannot get any dividend payment until the cumulative preferred has been brought completely current. Therefore, a total of $5 is past due covering the shortfall in the prior 2 years, and $5 is due for the current year: $10 must be paid to get current.
Question 12

When an investor writes a covered call, the client’s profit and loss potential on that position becomes:

A
Unlimited loss and limited profit
B
Unlimited loss and unlimited profit
C
Limited loss and unlimited profit
D
Limited loss and limited profit
Question 12 Explanation: 
An illustration is the best way to show why limited profit/limited loss is correct:

Example:
You purchase 100 shares of ABC stock at $50. You write/sell an ABC May 50 call for a premium of $3. If the stock falls to zero dollars per share (bankrupt), you lose $50 on the stock but get to keep the $3 premium. Net loss = $47/share. If the stock rises to infinity, your call gets exercised and you are OBLIGATED to deliver your 100 shares of ABC to the person exercising the call, and you will receive the $50 per share exercise price. You sold your stock at $50 and you had paid $50 for it initially --- you make nothing on the stock, but you get to keep the $3 premium --- your maximum gain is $3 per share. You have limited loss ($47 worst case) and you have limited gain ($3 best case).
Question 13

When the term ‘shelf registration’ is used, it typically refers to:

A
Registering securities with the SEC in anticipation of a future offering.
B
Registering securities with the SEC and selling part of the registered securities immediately and reserving the remaining securities for sale at a later time.
C
Filing a notice with the SEC of the Issuer’s intent to file a registration statement in the next 90 days.
D
An offering which began but due to lackluster public interest, was put ‘on the shelf’ for a period not to exceed 30 days to see if investor interest picked up.
Question 13 Explanation: 
This is the industry’s definition of a ‘shelf’ offering – register more shares now than you intend to sell now, and save the balance for a later time, putting them ‘on the shelf.’
Question 14

When institutional investment managers open brokerage accounts at several clearing broker-dealers, those clearing broker-dealers process the transactions and have the back-office clearing and processing handled through a single broker-dealer. This firm is identified in the SEC and FINRA regulations as a:

A
Floor Broker
B
Registered Trader
C
Prime broker
D
Omnibus firm
Question 14 Explanation: 
Think of a funnel. Big institutional investors are doing many trades every day through numerous broker-dealers with which they have accounts. But all the transactions and the cash and securities clearing and settlement are ‘funneled’ through one firm for accounting simplicity. The prime broker is the bottom part of the funnel.
Question 15

When a Board declares a cash dividend, the order of dates beginning with that announcement date is:

I.    Declaration date

II.   Payment date

III.  Record date

IV.  Ex-dividend date

A
I, III, IV, II
B
II, III, IV, I
C
I, II, IV, III
D
I, IV, III, II
Question 15 Explanation: 
Remember the acronym D E R P — this is the chronological order of the relevant dates when a cash dividend is declared: declaration date; ex-dividend date; record date; payable date.
Question 16

A market maker is quoting a stock at 23.15 – 23.30. If the firm fails to honor its quote for at least one round lot on both sides of the market,

A
It will be guilty of a manipulative and deceptive act.
B
It will be guilty of a backing away violation.
C
It will be involuntarily removed as a market maker in that stock for a period of one month.
D
This is not a violation.
Question 16 Explanation: 
Failure to honor a firm quote is called ‘backing away.’
Question 17

When investors put their capital at risk, they rely upon the input and advice of their financial advisors, persons associated with a broker-dealer who have been trained in the field of investments and investment risks. As a concept, hedging has its primary purpose:

A
Increasing maximum potential profits while eliminating the risk of loss.
B
Mitigating maximum potential loss.
C
Limiting loss as well as limited profit.
D
Reducing potential taxes on an investment.
Question 17 Explanation: 
Hedging investment risks involves strategies to mitigate and to reduce exposure to investment loss. Hedging is not a concept of maximizing profits.
Question 18

NASDAQ market makers wishing to increase the ADTV (average daily trading volume) they handle in those stocks:

A
May publish positive research reports about those issuers.
B
May instruct their registered reps to recommend those issues to their customers in greater amounts.
C
May pay other brokerage firms to direct trades in those issues to the market maker for execution.
D
None of the above are permitted activities.
Question 18 Explanation: 
This practice is known as ‘payment for order flow’ and is perfectly legal as long as the firm makes full disclosure to public customers that such an agreement exists.
Question 19

A client of yours purchased 1000 shares of RAL common stock on Monday, February 11th in a cash account at a CMV of $115 per share. The next day the stock moves to $128 on a very favorable news report and the client places an order to sell the 1000 shares at the market. On the Reg. T payment date the client has not paid for the purchase and asks that liquidation proceeds be used to cover the cost of the purchase.

A
This is free-riding, a violation of Reg. T
B
This is a variation of front-running, a fraudulent act.
C
This is referred to as trading ahead.
D
Your firm will begin an investigation into the probability that this client had access to inside information prior to the announcement of the favorable news.
Question 19 Explanation: 
The purchase needs to be paid for in a timely way or the law does not consider the purchaser to be the ‘owner’ of the shares and entitled to any profit on them. Regulation T refers to the use of sale proceeds to pay for the purchase as ‘free-riding.’ It is not acceptable.
Question 20

A short call is:

A
An option contract where the investor has a contractual obligation, for the duration of the contract, to deliver the underlying instrument at the strike price upon exercise.
B
An option contract where the investor has a contractual obligation until expiry to purchase the underlying instrument at the exercise price upon exercise.
C
An option contract where the investor has borrowed a call option from an investor with a long position and sold it short in anticipation of a decline in the option premium prior to expiry.
D
An option contract where the investors has the right to purchase the underlying instrument at any time prior to option expiration at the designated strike price.
Question 20 Explanation: 
Answer A is accurate --- short call means writing a call, which puts the investor in an obligated position to sell 100 shares of the stock at the exercise price if exercised….. assuming it’s an equity option.
Question 21

Allowable ways to qualify for a breakpoint when purchasing front-end load mutual funds include:

I.    Exchange or conversion privilege with a fund family

II.   Reinvesting dividends and/or capital gains distributions under an LOI.

III.  13 month LOI

IV.  ROA — rights of accumulation

A
All of the above
B
II, III, and IV
C
III and IV
D
III only
Question 21 Explanation: 
Statements III and IV are two of the ways to obtain a reduced sales charge (breakpoint). Switching from one fund to another under the same sponsorship(exchange privilege) carries no sales charge at all, so a reduction is irrelevant. Reinvesting distributions is a wonderful practice, and will help reach a breakpoint, but ONLY under the ROA (rights of accumulation) program, not the 13 months LOI approach.
Question 22

Each of the below business enterprises exhibit flow-through of tax and related consequences except:

A
DPP
B
LLC
C
Sub S
D
C corp
Question 22 Explanation: 
The regular corporation, known as the C corp., has its profits taxed under the Internal Revenue Code. The other three business types in this question are not subject to IRS taxation of their profits.
Question 23

Depreciation write-offs represent which of the following?

A
An estimate of the loss in value of a tangible asset over time.
B
An IRS mandated percentage allowable annual non-cash charge against revenues.
C
A subtraction from the computation of corporate cash flow.
D
A tax deduction for the loss in value due to extraction or removal.
Question 23 Explanation: 
Businesses can take advantage of annual tax-deductible write-offs according to specific schedules in the internal revenue code, referred to as depreciation schedules.
Question 24

Every FINRA member firm must have in place a Business Continuity Plan which addresses:

A
How the firm will continue operations if and when the firm is sold
B
How the firm will continue operations if and when the firm becomes subject to a SIPC proceedings
C
How customers of the firm will be able to access their accounts and assets during a disaster or pandemic which has made normal operations infeasible
D
How the firm’s hiring practices will comport with Department of Labor rulings in a proper and timely way.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Hurricanes, tornadoes, earthquakes, floods, the electric grid going down, disasters which disrupt business operations for long periods of time….. FINRA requires every brokerage firm to have a plan in place so that investors can have access to their accounts as quickly as possible ----FINRA calls it a business continuity plan.
Question 25

A candidate who fails the SIE exam three times and has waited the six-month moratorium period is preparing to take the exam for the fourth time. Which of the following is true?

A
The candidate will be required to pass the exam or wait for a 30-day wait period before a 5th attempt.
B
The candidate will be told by FINRA that a one-year moratorium period will be put in place.
C
The candidate will be given a more difficult version of the exam.
D
The candidate will have to wait another six-months if the exam is failed on the 4th try.
Question 25 Explanation: 
FINRA gives a candidate three tries before imposing a six month waiting period. Each failure from the 4th failure on requires another six-month waiting period.
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